Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants and Human Reproductive System

Leave a Comment / By /

Question 1: Which part of the stamen is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower?

  • A. Anther
  • B. Proximal end of the filament
  • C. Distal end of the filament
  • D. Connective

Correct Answer: Proximal end of the filament

Explanation: The proximal end of the filament connects the stamen to the flower structure.

Question 2: In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium is generally surrounded by how many wall layers?

  • A. Two
  • B. Three
  • C. Four
  • D. Five

Correct Answer: Four

Explanation: A typical microsporangium is surrounded by four wall layers.

Question 3: Which of the following statements regarding the exine of a pollen grain is correct?

  • A. It is a thin and continuous layer made of cellulose.
  • B. It is made of sporopollenin, which no known enzyme can degrade.
  • C. It is composed of pectin and cellulose.
  • D. It lacks germ pores where sporopollenin is present.

Correct Answer: It is made of sporopollenin, which no known enzyme can degrade.

Explanation: Sporopollenin is a highly resistant substance that forms the exine of pollen grains.

Question 4: The gynoecium of a flower may be ‘syncarpous,’ which means that:

  • A. The pistil consists of a single carpel.
  • B. There are many pistils and they are all free.
  • C. There are many pistils and they are fused together.
  • D. The ovary contains only one ovule.

Correct Answer: There are many pistils and they are fused together.

Explanation: Syncarpous refers to a gynoecium with multiple carpels that are fused.

Question 5: Arising from the placenta are the megasporangia, which are commonly referred to as:

  • A. Pollen sacs
  • B. Ovules
  • C. Nucellus
  • D. Embryo sacs

Correct Answer: Ovules

Explanation: Ovules are the megasporangia that develop into seeds after fertilization.

Question 6: The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called:

  • A. Megasporogenesis
  • B. Microsporogenesis
  • C. Pollination
  • D. Embryogenesis

Correct Answer: Microsporogenesis

Explanation: Microsporogenesis is the process that leads to the formation of microspores.

Question 7: In over 60 percent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at which stage?

  • A. 1-celled stage
  • B. 2-celled stage
  • C. 3-celled stage
  • D. 4-celled stage

Correct Answer: 2-celled stage

Explanation: Most angiosperms shed pollen grains at the 2-celled stage.

Question 8: Megasporogenesis results in the production of four megaspores. In a majority of flowering plants, what is the fate of these megaspores?

  • A. All four develop into embryo sacs.
  • B. Two degenerate and two are functional.
  • C. Three degenerate and only one is functional.
  • D. One degenerates and three are functional.

Correct Answer: Three degenerate and only one is functional.

Explanation: Typically, in flowering plants, three megaspores degenerate, leaving one functional megaspore.

Question 9: The method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed as:

  • A. Bisporic development
  • B. Monosporic development
  • C. Tetrasporic development
  • D. Apomictic development

Correct Answer: Monosporic development

Explanation: Monosporic development refers to the formation of an embryo sac from a single megaspore.

Question 10: A typical mature angiosperm embryo sac is:

  • A. 8-nucleate and 8-celled
  • B. 7-nucleate and 8-celled
  • C. 8-nucleate and 7-celled
  • D. 7-nucleate and 7-celled

Correct Answer: 8-nucleate and 7-celled

Explanation: A mature angiosperm embryo sac typically has 8 nuclei and 7 cells.

Question 11: The mechanism of transfer of pollen grains to the stigma of a pistil is called:

  • A. Fertilisation
  • B. Syngamy
  • C. Pollination
  • D. Emasculation

Correct Answer: Pollination

Explanation: Pollination is the process by which pollen is transferred to the stigma.

Question 12: Which type of pollination involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant?

  • A. Autogamy
  • B. Geitonogamy
  • C. Xenogamy
  • D. Cleistogamy

Correct Answer: Geitonogamy

Explanation: Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen between flowers of the same plant.

Question 13: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of wind-pollinated flowers?

  • A. They are very colorful and produce rich nectar.
  • B. They have sticky pollen grains and large petals.
  • C. They possess well-exposed stamens and large, feathery stigmas.
  • D. They always have many ovules in each ovary.

Correct Answer: They possess well-exposed stamens and large, feathery stigmas.

Explanation: Wind-pollinated flowers typically have exposed stamens and feathery stigmas to catch pollen.

Question 14: In which of the following plants does the female flower reach the surface of water by a long stalk for pollination?

  • A. Zostera
  • B. Vallisneria
  • C. Water hyacinth
  • D. Hydrilla

Correct Answer: Vallisneria

Explanation: In Vallisneria, the female flower rises to the water surface for pollination.

Question 15: Cleistogamous flowers ensure a seed-set even in the absence of pollinators because they:

  • A. Are always cross-pollinated by wind.
  • B. Never open, ensuring the pollen contacts the stigma of the same flower.
  • C. Attract a wide variety of insect pollinators.
  • D. Have self-incompatibility mechanisms.

Correct Answer: Never open, ensuring the pollen contacts the stigma of the same flower.

Explanation: Cleistogamous flowers remain closed, allowing self-pollination.

Question 16: The ability of the pistil to recognize and either accept or reject pollen is mediated by:

  • A. Physical pressure
  • B. Chemical components interacting between pollen and pistil
  • C. The size of the pollen grain
  • D. The color of the flower

Correct Answer: Chemical components interacting between pollen and pistil

Explanation: The recognition is mediated by chemical signals between the pollen and the pistil.

Question 17: What is the specific function of the filiform apparatus in the embryo sac?

  • A. It provides nutrition to the egg cell.
  • B. It guides the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid.
  • C. It prevents multiple pollen tubes from entering.
  • D. It aids in the formation of the primary endosperm nucleus.

Correct Answer: It guides the entry of the pollen tube into the synergid.

Explanation: The filiform apparatus helps direct the pollen tube to the egg cell.

Question 18: Double fertilisation is a unique event in flowering plants involving:

  • A. Two syngamy events
  • B. One syngamy and one triple fusion
  • C. Two triple fusions
  • D. Fusion of two polar nuclei only

Correct Answer: One syngamy and one triple fusion

Explanation: Double fertilization involves one sperm fertilizing the egg and another sperm fusing with polar nuclei.

Question 19: In coconut, the water from tender coconut represents:

  • A. Cellular endosperm
  • B. Free-nuclear endosperm
  • C. Degenerated nucellus
  • D. The embryo itself

Correct Answer: Free-nuclear endosperm

Explanation: The water in tender coconut is the free-nuclear endosperm.

Question 20: In a dicotyledonous embryo, the portion of the embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the:

  • A. Hypocotyl
  • B. Radicle
  • C. Epicotyl
  • D. Scutellum

Correct Answer: Epicotyl

Explanation: The epicotyl is the part of the embryonal axis above the cotyledons.

Question 21: In angiosperms, the final product of sexual reproduction is the:

  • A. Ovule
  • B. Carpel
  • C. Seed
  • D. Endosperm

Correct Answer: Seed

Explanation: The seed is the final product of sexual reproduction in angiosperms.

Question 22: Fruits that develop only from the ovary are called:

  • A. False fruits
  • B. True fruits
  • C. Parthenocarpic fruits
  • D. Apomictic fruits

Correct Answer: True fruits

Explanation: True fruits develop solely from the ovary after fertilization.

Question 23: Which of the following is an example of a parthenocarpic fruit that develops without fertilisation?

  • A. Apple
  • B. Strawberry
  • C. Banana
  • D. Mango

Correct Answer: Banana

Explanation: Bananas are parthenocarpic fruits that develop without fertilization.

Question 24: What is the significance of ‘dormancy’ in mature seeds?

  • A. It allows the seed to germinate immediately.
  • B. It is crucial for storage and survival until favorable conditions return.
  • C. It ensures that the endosperm is completely consumed.
  • D. It prevents the formation of the seed coat.

Correct Answer: It is crucial for storage and survival until favorable conditions return.

Explanation: Dormancy allows seeds to survive until conditions are suitable for germination.

Question 25: Polyembryony, the occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed, is frequently seen in:

  • A. Pea
  • B. Citrus
  • C. Groundnut
  • D. Castor

Correct Answer: Citrus

Explanation: Polyembryony is commonly observed in citrus plants.

Question 26: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called:

  • A. Epididymis
  • B. Scrotum
  • C. Vas deferens
  • D. Pelvis

Correct Answer: Scrotum

Explanation: The scrotum is the pouch that houses the testes outside the abdominal cavity.

Question 27: The edges of the infundibulum in the female reproductive system possess finger-like projections called:

  • A. Ampulla
  • B. Isthmus
  • C. Fimbriae
  • D. Cervix

Correct Answer: Fimbriae

Explanation: Fimbriae are the finger-like projections at the edges of the infundibulum.

Question 28: Which cells in the seminiferous tubules provide nutrition to the germ cells?

  • A. Leydig cells
  • B. Spermatogonia
  • C. Sertoli cells
  • D. Interstitial cells

Correct Answer: Sertoli cells

Explanation: Sertoli cells nourish and support the developing germ cells.

Question 29: The ovarian stroma is divided into two zones:

  • A. Endometrium and Myometrium
  • B. Peripheral cortex and inner medulla
  • C. Infundibulum and Ampulla
  • D. Mons pubis and Labia majora

Correct Answer: Peripheral cortex and inner medulla

Explanation: The ovarian stroma consists of a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla.

Question 30: Which gland’s secretion helps in the lubrication of the penis?

  • A. Prostate gland
  • B. Seminal vesicle
  • C. Bulbourethral gland
  • D. Mammary gland

Correct Answer: Bulbourethral gland

Explanation: The bulbourethral gland secretes a fluid that lubricates the penis.

Question 31: In males, the process of spermatogenesis begins at:

  • A. Birth
  • B. Embryonic stage
  • C. Puberty
  • D. Old age

Correct Answer: Puberty

Explanation: Spermatogenesis begins at puberty when testosterone levels increase.

Question 32: Which hormone acts on the Leydig cells to stimulate the secretion of androgens?

  • A. FSH
  • B. LH
  • C. GnRH
  • D. Estrogen

Correct Answer: LH

Explanation: Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates Leydig cells to produce androgens.

Question 33: Unlike spermatogenesis, oogenesis is initiated during:

  • A. Puberty
  • B. The menstrual cycle
  • C. The embryonic development stage
  • D. Menopause

Correct Answer: The embryonic development stage

Explanation: Oogenesis begins during embryonic development and is arrested until puberty.

Question 34: The rupture of the Graafian follicle to release the secondary oocyte is called:

  • A. Spermiation
  • B. Fertilisation
  • C. Ovulation
  • D. Implantation

Correct Answer: Ovulation

Explanation: Ovulation is the process where the Graafian follicle releases the secondary oocyte.

Question 35: Which hormone’s rapid secretion (surge) induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle?

  • A. Progesterone
  • B. LH
  • C. FSH
  • D. Estrogen

Correct Answer: LH

Explanation: The surge in luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation.

Question 36: The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called:

  • A. Insemination
  • B. Fertilisation
  • C. Cleavage
  • D. Implantation

Correct Answer: Fertilisation

Explanation: Fertilization is the process where sperm and ovum unite.

Question 37: The mitotic division that starts as the zygote moves through the isthmus towards the uterus is called:

  • A. Meiosis
  • B. Gastrulation
  • C. Cleavage
  • D. Oogenesis

Correct Answer: Cleavage

Explanation: Cleavage is the series of mitotic divisions of the zygote.

Question 38: The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is specifically called a:

  • A. Trophoblast
  • B. Blastocyst
  • C. Morula
  • D. Inner cell mass

Correct Answer: Morula

Explanation: A morula is an early stage of embryonic development with 8 to 16 blastomeres.

Question 39: Implantation involves the attachment of the blastocyst to which layer of the uterus?

  • A. Perimetrium
  • B. Myometrium
  • C. Endometrium
  • D. Ectoderm

Correct Answer: Endometrium

Explanation: The blastocyst implants into the endometrium of the uterus.

Question 40: Which of the following hormones is produced in women ONLY during pregnancy?

  • A. Estrogen
  • B. Progesterone
  • C. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
  • D. Cortisol

Correct Answer: Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Explanation: hCG is produced only during pregnancy to maintain the corpus luteum.

Question 41: The inner cell mass of the blastocyst contains ‘stem cells’ which have the potency to:

  • A. Form the placenta only
  • B. Produce milk
  • C. Give rise to all tissues and organs
  • D. Induce the fetal ejection reflex

Correct Answer: Give rise to all tissues and organs

Explanation: Stem cells in the inner cell mass can differentiate into all cell types.

Question 42: In human embryonic development, the heart is formed after how many months of pregnancy?

  • A. One month
  • B. Two months
  • C. Three months
  • D. Five months

Correct Answer: One month

Explanation: The heart begins to form within the first month of pregnancy.

Question 43: The process of delivery of the foetus is called:

  • A. Gestation
  • B. Implantation
  • C. Parturition
  • D. Lactation

Correct Answer: Parturition

Explanation: Parturition is the process of delivering the fetus.

Question 44: Which hormone triggers stronger uterine contractions during parturition?

  • A. Prolactin
  • B. Oxytocin
  • C. Relaxin
  • D. Thyroxine

Correct Answer: Oxytocin

Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates uterine contractions during labor.

Question 45: The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called:

  • A. Semen
  • B. Colostrum
  • C. Alveoli
  • D. Serum

Correct Answer: Colostrum

Explanation: Colostrum is the first milk produced after childbirth, rich in antibodies.

Question 46: Amniocentesis is a procedure used to:

  • A. Induce lactation
  • B. Determine the sex and test for genetic disorders of the foetus
  • C. Increase fertility in males
  • D. Monitor the mother’s blood pressure

Correct Answer: Determine the sex and test for genetic disorders of the foetus

Explanation: Amniocentesis is used to analyze amniotic fluid for genetic testing.

Question 47: According to the 2011 census, India’s population growth rate was:

  • A. Above 5 percent
  • B. Less than 2 percent
  • C. Exactly 10 percent
  • D. Zero

Correct Answer: Less than 2 percent

Explanation: The population growth rate in India was reported to be less than 2 percent.

Question 48: Which of the following is a ‘copper-releasing’ IUD?

  • A. Lippes loop
  • B. LNG-20
  • C. Multiload 375
  • D. Progestasert

Correct Answer: Multiload 375

Explanation: Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing intrauterine device (IUD).

Question 49: Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered relatively safe up to how many weeks?

  • A. 12 weeks
  • B. 24 weeks
  • C. 36 weeks
  • D. Full term

Correct Answer: 12 weeks

Explanation: MTP is generally considered safe within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.

Question 50: In which ART technique is the embryo (with more than 8 blastomeres) transferred directly into the uterus?

  • A. ZIFT
  • B. GIFT
  • C. IUT
  • D. AI

Correct Answer: IUT

Explanation: Intrauterine transfer (IUT) involves placing the embryo directly into the uterus.

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *

Scroll to Top